EliteKakashi
Active member
I've always kind of speculated on the subject, but never really cared enough to go in to detail about it. I mean, in the long run, what does it really matter? But thinking on it, I feel I've found a possible explanation that Kishi may use if he ever decides to give one(which, at this point, seems HIGHLY unlikely to ever happen).
That being that Kakashi's MS was unlocked when he saw or heard of Rin's death. When that was is obviously a mystery(and could be explained as well during the explanation of him receiving the MS), but it's possible all the same. It's the only situation that Kakashi has really experience emotional trauma with the sharingan in him(Obito was pre-sharingan, really).
Some of you are probably wondering - Why didn't he use it in any of his fights in part 1? Well, there's 2 explanations for that. Number one being he didn't really know what the mangekyou sharingan was or what it was capable of, and even after learning more about it during part 1(after his encounter with Itachi), he didn't have the chakra reserves to use it.
We all know his stamina/chakra is still considered below what most elite ninja are, but back in part 1 it was just putrid, being bed-ridden after using the sharingan for short periods of time.
Another reason that kind of tags along with the other 2 is he was simply trying to figure out how to activate it whenever he wanted to, and after that training to use it. I mean, we saw how inaccurate it was vs Deidara, imagine how inaccurate it would have been pre-time skip.
I'm by no means stating this is absolutely how it happened, simply an idea and something that could be used as a possible explanation of how he unlocked/why didn't he use it in part 1/etc. Thoughts? Find any reason why this sounds incredibly stupid? I'm interested in others opinions on this theory.
I know I'm not the first to say he got it during Rin's death, but I think I'm the first to post why I believe he didn't use it in part 1 and etc.
That being that Kakashi's MS was unlocked when he saw or heard of Rin's death. When that was is obviously a mystery(and could be explained as well during the explanation of him receiving the MS), but it's possible all the same. It's the only situation that Kakashi has really experience emotional trauma with the sharingan in him(Obito was pre-sharingan, really).
Some of you are probably wondering - Why didn't he use it in any of his fights in part 1? Well, there's 2 explanations for that. Number one being he didn't really know what the mangekyou sharingan was or what it was capable of, and even after learning more about it during part 1(after his encounter with Itachi), he didn't have the chakra reserves to use it.
We all know his stamina/chakra is still considered below what most elite ninja are, but back in part 1 it was just putrid, being bed-ridden after using the sharingan for short periods of time.
Another reason that kind of tags along with the other 2 is he was simply trying to figure out how to activate it whenever he wanted to, and after that training to use it. I mean, we saw how inaccurate it was vs Deidara, imagine how inaccurate it would have been pre-time skip.
I'm by no means stating this is absolutely how it happened, simply an idea and something that could be used as a possible explanation of how he unlocked/why didn't he use it in part 1/etc. Thoughts? Find any reason why this sounds incredibly stupid? I'm interested in others opinions on this theory.
I know I'm not the first to say he got it during Rin's death, but I think I'm the first to post why I believe he didn't use it in part 1 and etc.
