SIR HERDERP PRESIDERP SDO
Legendary Shinobi 🐸
- Joined
- Dec 3, 2012
- Messages
- 39,759
- Reaction score
- 7,032
Some assume that the Rinnegan, when Madara initially awakened it, already had its' full powers, or that it was already fully awakened. I would like to clarify that this is not the case, Madara awakened the Rinnegan, but its' full powers were not yet at its' disposal.
This is the panel in 606 when Madara was talking to Obito about the Rinnegan and the Gedo Mazo.
It says "Even if you don't awaken the Rinnegan you can still control the Mazo."
Based on the grammatical structure and context of the sentence, it clearly states that the Rinnegan has not yet fully awakened when Madara conceived it. It's not past tense, on the contrary, it's future tense "do not" instead of "did not" (which is the past tense form of the verb) meaning the "awakening" referred to in Madara's statement hasn't happened yet, which is the awakening of the Rinnegan's full powers. And take not, Madara did not use the distinguishing adjective "your" if Madara was actually referring to Obito awakening his own Rinnegan, then he would say "even if you dont awaken your own Rinnegan..." But he referred to the Rinnegan as if it's already existing, therefore, it is only logical to conlude that Madara was referring to the actual existing Rinnegan which he gave to Nagato.
So the correct interpretation of the text would be:
"Even if you don't awaken the Rinnegan because Nagato has it, you can still control the Mazo"
Even if you look at the original Japanese text here:
It would translate to this:
"Although the eye of Samsara(Rinnegan) is not open, you should be able to handle this power. (Gedo Mazo)"
It would be contradictory for Madara to say "Even if you do not awaken the awakened Rinnegan you can still control the Mazo" Why would he refer to the Rinnegan's further awakening if it was fully awakened in the first place? Madara was definitely not suggesting about Obito's awakening his own Rinnegan, since it is a moot point if Obito could actually awaken it like Madara, what Madara was referring to is the further awakening of the Rinnegan he gave to Nagato Madara was implying the necessity of giving the Rinnegan to Nagato in the first place. Because he needed Nagato to further awaken its' powers.
So it's only logical to conclude, that based on Madara's statement, the Rinnegan wasn't fully awakened yet.
That is why he needed Nagato Uzumaki to awaken the Rinnegan's full powers.
And do you not also wonder why it took Tobi, Nagato & Akatsuki decades before commencing the Eye of the Moon Plan? instead of starting immediately after the events like the Kyuubi attack on Konoha? why wait for more than one and a half decade? it's because the Rinnegan was not fully awakened yet during the time period of before and during Naruto's first 12-15 years of his life, the Rinnegan was not available, nor was the Nine Phantom Dragons of the Gedo Mazo available during that period which is used to extract the Bijuus from their Jinchuurikis, because Nagato, being an Uzumaki, fully awakened the Rinnegan's powers during a later time.
This is the panel in 606 when Madara was talking to Obito about the Rinnegan and the Gedo Mazo.
You must be registered for see images
It says "Even if you don't awaken the Rinnegan you can still control the Mazo."
Based on the grammatical structure and context of the sentence, it clearly states that the Rinnegan has not yet fully awakened when Madara conceived it. It's not past tense, on the contrary, it's future tense "do not" instead of "did not" (which is the past tense form of the verb) meaning the "awakening" referred to in Madara's statement hasn't happened yet, which is the awakening of the Rinnegan's full powers. And take not, Madara did not use the distinguishing adjective "your" if Madara was actually referring to Obito awakening his own Rinnegan, then he would say "even if you dont awaken your own Rinnegan..." But he referred to the Rinnegan as if it's already existing, therefore, it is only logical to conlude that Madara was referring to the actual existing Rinnegan which he gave to Nagato.
So the correct interpretation of the text would be:
"Even if you don't awaken the Rinnegan because Nagato has it, you can still control the Mazo"
Even if you look at the original Japanese text here:
You must be registered for see images
It would translate to this:
You must be registered for see images
"Although the eye of Samsara(Rinnegan) is not open, you should be able to handle this power. (Gedo Mazo)"
It would be contradictory for Madara to say "Even if you do not awaken the awakened Rinnegan you can still control the Mazo" Why would he refer to the Rinnegan's further awakening if it was fully awakened in the first place? Madara was definitely not suggesting about Obito's awakening his own Rinnegan, since it is a moot point if Obito could actually awaken it like Madara, what Madara was referring to is the further awakening of the Rinnegan he gave to Nagato Madara was implying the necessity of giving the Rinnegan to Nagato in the first place. Because he needed Nagato to further awaken its' powers.
So it's only logical to conclude, that based on Madara's statement, the Rinnegan wasn't fully awakened yet.
That is why he needed Nagato Uzumaki to awaken the Rinnegan's full powers.
You must be registered for see images
And do you not also wonder why it took Tobi, Nagato & Akatsuki decades before commencing the Eye of the Moon Plan? instead of starting immediately after the events like the Kyuubi attack on Konoha? why wait for more than one and a half decade? it's because the Rinnegan was not fully awakened yet during the time period of before and during Naruto's first 12-15 years of his life, the Rinnegan was not available, nor was the Nine Phantom Dragons of the Gedo Mazo available during that period which is used to extract the Bijuus from their Jinchuurikis, because Nagato, being an Uzumaki, fully awakened the Rinnegan's powers during a later time.
Last edited:
