Sharingan Question

[gordo1]

I keep seeing threads and posts saying that Izuna couldn't have taken someone else's sharingan and gotten the mangekyou sharingan because they'd need to have it already for it to transfer. But that leads me to ask: How does Kakashi have it? Obito obviously didn't have it, he barely even awakened his normal sharingan with two dots (I forget what they're called), not three. If Kakashi, who isn't even an Uchiha (let alone one of the strongest Uchiha ever) could awaken the mangekyou sharingan, why wouldn't Izuna be able to? That logic makes no sense to me. Am I missing something?

 

[Οdin]

You're not missing anything... it's the people from the base that refuse to believe in something if that something will weaken or defeat their argument.

 

[saaaaaadpanda]

Nope, you're not missing a thing.

 

[Lambeezy]

Hmm you make a very good point Evan i can't help you in this Category

 

[Overrated]

Well the only plausible explanation is that Izuna no longer has any person close to him therefor he cant lose that person and experience said trauma that leads to the awakening of the mangekyo.

 

[gordo1]

Well the only plausible explanation is that Izuna no longer has any person close to him therefor he cant lose that person and experience said trauma that leads to the awakening of the mangekyo.

Interesting point, I didn't think of that. I would think someone so esteemed would have more than one person close to them, but good point.