Obito and Kakashi Mangekyo Sharingan

[Zokiro]

So it is safe to assume Obito got his by seeing Rin die. But how did Kakashi get his? I was thinking maybe since it was not his eye he could never be the one to awaken it. Maybe since he saw the closest person to the owner of the eye die, he would be able to activate the Mangekyo Sharingan, but being a non Uchiha it would take him a long time to discover he had these abilities. Which might explain why he didn't have it until Part 2.

That or Kakashi never had any reason to use it in part 1. But I think he said he wanted to try a new technique when Naruto and himself were chasing after him to get Gaara's corpse back. Not 100% sure, just a thought.

 

[mrenvy999]

Dont know....maybe you are right. During the battle with Zabuza, Kakashi himself stated that he cannot use the sharingan to it's fullest potential...

 

[mrenvy999]

what i don't understand is how obito went from 2 tomoe to ms?

senju dna lol.....

 

[Yusuke Urameshi]

What I don't understand is how Obito went from 2 Tomoe to MS?

 

[ShinraRengan]

Can't use it's full potential but he should be able to use tskuyomi or ametarsu since he has on mangekyou

 

[Akx19]

Quoting myself from another thread about this. With a small edit.

Madara said it in the chapter or two before. You need both eyes in order to awake their potential. Aka MS. We saw in the last chapter that when Obito is near his other eye he is able to see through it. (able to see through kakashi's eye). IMO this means that Kakashi NEVER awakened his own MS. Since both of Obito's eyes were linked, present and witnessed Rin's death, he awaked MS in both of them. However given that one eye is in Kakashi, a non uchiha, he was not able to utilize or re-awaken his until much later (3 year skip).