Divorce

10th

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I heard that divorce in western countries are very bias in favor of women.
Can someone give me a simple explanation to how the system works?
And if you're able to speculate why it is as it is.
 

Hazo

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Since women are weaker and the law tries to improve feminism movement
 

slayerdanger

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Women get half of the man's things, and the kids, so she can live a pampered life.
 

Madarauchiwa

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its extremely biased towards women and its bullsh*t. women get half your sh*t plus the kids and you have to pay alimony. all this because women can't get along in life without a man to support them. they claim its because married women become accustomed to "a certain lifestyle" and because of this they cant get off their ass and get a damn job and advance themselves. honestly our divorce policies is a huge part of why men think women are inferior to us and rightfully so
 

Joon

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Its based on lifestyle (who is providing for who) and kids (who is fit to raise them).
 

giostep

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Well. Ideally the divorce would end with. The Female getting 50% of the wealth she HELPED the man accumulate, and by HELP I mean she was married to him during the time he made it. The Kids would also get shared custody meaning they spend 365/2 with the Dad and 365/2 with the mom. Assuming the women was unable to develop a career, for whatever reason, he would have to pay her alimony for a set period of time.

Remember thats the Idea situation.

Usually its something like. Women gets 50% of total wealth if you didnt have a prenuptual agreement stating otherwise, meaning that if I made 100,000 before i met her, and then made another 100,000 with her (think of it like a savings account), if i didnt make her sign a prenuptual agreement then she would get 50% of 200,000 instead of 50% of 100,000. Then when it comes to children women usually get most of the custody which decreases her taxes. This is important because then the man must pay child support, which means that he must pay an amount that would allow the children to live as though both parents income was coming into the house. Then if she didnt get a career for whatever reason the man would also have to pay alimony.

So all in all
You lose 50% of your accumulated wealth (if you didnt get a prenuptial agreement)
You pay child support, which is dependant on your monthly income and wealth, Kevin hart the comedian pays like 15k a month..
You then pay alimony (if your wife is unable to make income due to helping you make wealth)

The aftermath of that is that you are basically supporting your old family for the next 2 to 3 decades. If it went the ideal way then it wouldnt be toooooo bad, but hey, this is the reason why they say its "its cheaper to keep her."
 

βeeCee

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Smh at all the misguided answers.

OT: There is no simple explanation because divorce is basically a form of a contract that is negotiated between lawyers and the individuals involved. There isn't always a 50/50 division of assets or "wealth." In fact, the majority of divorces usually side with the person that filed first, which is typically the woman. Another factor that plays a role in the decision is the reason. Those that claim infidelity or abuse are given more favorable decisions towards the victim. Usually court is brought in when there are kids involved and it can get even more complicated if one party is requesting full custody. Custody laws are a complete other beast that's confusing but I will agree it is somewhat bias towards the woman.
 

10th

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All of you gave me good answers especially giostep, great explanation there. I wonder why the man can't pay alimony for same amount of years they were married or give the woman a deadline for when she have to be able to support herself within x amount of time because there is no more alimony and why do father's have to pay child support if they weren't the ones who filed first and the woman have full custody of the children? Also do women pay alimony too? Doesn't the man get 50% of the woman's assets? Do women pay alimony and child support if a man has custody of the children?
 
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