And in omitting the omnibenevolence of God and merely saying that free will is incompatible with knowledge of future events you have proposed one objection. If you wish to add other objections (an example of which is contradiction with omnibenevolence) you are indeed free to do so but that is a seperate objection. It's ok to present multiple objections as the debate progresses but you don't just keep adding on to the same objection trying to turn it into something it originally wasn't. I'm not saying you purposefully did this, but the way you wrote it and the way you word it now are two different things.
This was the original objection:
"The problem here is that if God is Omniscient and Omnipresent, he/she would know or at least have the ability to know the outcomes of everyone's life even before they begin. If he/she did know then it'd mean I have no free will since I cannot alter what God has fated/seen."
You're clearly presenting a case for logical incompatibility of omniscience and libertarian freedom. Omnibenevolence isn't a part of the package.
I see the point you're making. You're right, that'd sound a bit confusing.
I should have brought in the omni-benevolence from the start.
I used the classical definition of God with all His/Her attributes.
Now what I am saying is that even considering just the Omni-benevolence and Omniscience of God would make the concept of Free Will null and void.
The disanalogy here is that a laptop isn't a sentinent, self-conscious, libertarian agent.
@bold: I never did such a thing. This place isn't at all for arguing about the existence free will, this is a completely separate problem which is more closely related to the philosophy of mind than philosophy of religion. What is being explored here is a hypothetical scenario (a logical framework) in which libertarian freedom is pressuposed.
1. The laptop may not have a brain exactly like ours but how do you know it isn't sentient?? How do you know it doesn't feel?? How do you know it isn't conscious?? We may just not have the technology to know this yet.
So in fact the analogy stands, and you might want to go back and look at it.
Yes it's a hypothetical situation that uses Free Will to explain a concept. The problem is free will in itself isn't proven so the proof gotten from Free Will cannot hold.
What you're reffering to is a counter-argument from a skeptical theist's perspective. It goes to show that we cannot determine the probability. It doesn't represent the core of skeptical theism but merely parodies the atheist's jump from "maybe" to "is". As I said multiple times, it doesn't really try to show there really be no gratutious evil. All that is required here is to neutralise the argument from evil.
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You keep saying it doesn't try to proof there's is no gratuitous evil yet your conclusion says otherwise.
I'll quote it for you again:
4. Therefore, there is no gratuitous evil.
How is that's neutral conclusion?? A neutral conclusion would concede that both lack the requirements to know with certainty thus, there may or may not be gratuitous evil.
I said this already, the point of these arguments isn't to lay a positive case for theism, but merely to rebut the argument from evil. These arguments hold the purpose of a defeater not an enforcer and as such they establish exactly what they're supposed to.
See the answer above.
I know it because it is a logical consequence that follows from an intristic property of my conception of God - justice.
But before you can make a such a case, your concept of God has to be true. Else any derivation from it fails.
All I saw was you claiming:
1. God has made the majority of people morally culpable
2. The mentally ill are not held by those measures? So the mentally ill are not accountable for their actions??
These are claims are without substance.
"Imagine there is a hell and heaven after here. Even before God created us he knew how our lives would end and whether we'd go to heaven or hell.
So why would God create someone knowing very well the person would go to hell?? Do you get what I mean??"
This was your original objection in response to Pumpkin Ninja. ^ In it you're clearly presenting a conflict between God's knowledge and justice. What reason could God possibly have for creating an individual He knows would be doomed? This is how your question reads. My argument from the Fall and bulk-creation was merely a response to this, not at all an actual state of affairs. If, however you didn't mean this it would've been helpful if you clarified it earlier.
And I'll repeat what I said about The Fall.
The Fall has never been proven and most likely never will be proven.
So to explain your reasoning using The Fall won't be convincing in any way unless the listener is a Christian who believes in The Fall.
@bold: I don't see where you're coming with this. Every major religion is based on direct revalation of God so how much more of a manual can you get then the Ten Commandments or the Five Pillars? No, I think what you really meant to say is that there are different versions of these manuals so it is difficult to know which is true, but this is no longer saying there is no manual or there is no revalation. It is actually too many manuals!
And so we get to the problem of religious plurality which is only a problem if you think that God judges solely on one's adherence to a certain religion, which is not a necessary component of any major religion, let alone classic theism. But who is to say God doesn't judge people in a 1:1 relation. What I mean by 1:1 is that there is no one single standard according to which everyone will be judged (such as pure adherence to a certain religion), but instead that each person is individually judged based on his potentialities (what they could've done) and their actualisations (what they have done).
You mentioned an example of a person who was born into a wrong religion and never found the "right" way to God, but this need not be a definitive obstacle to that person's salvation. After all, plenty of people in the past such as Abraham and Moses were undeniably considered saved despite not following a specific set of rules which became realised later on. (Which puts more emphasis on the different criteria for salvation.) So I don't think simple non-belief in a given circumstance will be a definitive obstacle to one's salvation. (Yes, this can even include atheists.) I would like to comment that what we're discussing now is basically theology and not philosophy so I'd rather we go back on topic now.
If there's are several manuals and none of them is a true manual, how could anyone say there's a manual??
All the world religions have been unable to bring proof of their scripture coming from God so there's may be manuals from wherever they got their manuals but there is NO manual from God.
You mention Abraham and Moses, but there's no proof of their existence outside Christianity, Judaism and Islam which means I'd have to believe one of those before I can accept the existence of their prophets.
I also mentioned that even though these religions have no proof of their books coming from God, there's still the possibility that they came from God. But for such a possibility to be real it would mean God doesn't care enough to show us the way since he hasn't shown us which is right. I'm pretty sure the Gods they preach are said to care hence nullifying that possibility.
And about God judging people based in a 1:1 relation as you explained. That is an assumption with no backing whatsoever.