Oh wow, you called Kakashi's PS featless because he summoned it and isn't the source of it.
That's like saying Sasuke has no amaterastu feats because it belongs to Itachi.
Lawd help you.
maybe because he was exhausted for traveling through kaguyas dimensions, and since he was tired and he needed time to mold chakra which he did not have when kaguya thew those bones
Oh wow, you called Kakashi's PS featless because he summoned it and isn't the source of it.
That's like saying Sasuke has no amaterastu feats because it belongs to Itachi.
Lawd help you.
It still is ambiguous. I think everyone understood that the gift was only temporary. 3 translations saying the same thing pretty much confirms that. But the question that remains is what did he exactly mean when he said "it". Was "it" his chakra? Or was "it" his sharingans? Or was "it" Ps? What exactly had the fixed time limit? The only reason it's even questionable is because he goes from stating how it's annoying to him that his gift (eye) was returned to him to giving Kakashi a new gift for being Hokage to something having a fixed time limit. "It" being his chakra is the most likely answer as he saw a chakra manifestation enter Kakashi but when that chakra limit ends, will everything associated with also disappear or only the chakra? I think this is why so many people are divided on the issue.
Thought this waas obvious! If it was Kakashi power than there would have been no need for Obito to come back from the afterlife in the first place. Also, Kakashi is using Obito's sharingan, therefore every power that derives from those sharingan is Obito's. This is common sense. Now people gonna start saying Kamui Snipe is not Obito's power, sheesh!