was it a coincidence that kakashi unlocked the MS as soon as obito saw rin's death? Why didn't he unlocked it earlier? After all, he witnessed Her death first.
Oh I read your OP. Nowhere did you explain how Obito's brain chakra transferred to Kakashi's MS. Their Sharingan being connected doesn't explain that one bit.
Furthermore, Tobirama wasn't even talking about MS, he was talking about 3T, which is smack dab in the page you showed.
And no, Obito was watching as Kakashi killed Rin. They saw it at the same time.
Oh I read your OP. Nowhere did you explain how Obito's brain chakra transferred to Kakashi's MS. Their Sharingan being connected doesn't explain that one bit.
Furthermore, Tobirama wasn't even talking about MS, he was talking about 3T, which is smack dab in the page you showed.
And no, Obito was watching as Kakashi killed Rin. They saw it at the same time.
Doesn't matter because the sharingan has the same mechanism as the MS. Both need uchiha blood and both need a traumatic experience to unlock or awaken.
And no, Kakashi killed rin before Obito even made it to the field.
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Why didn't kakashi awaken it a little bit Sooner than obito? after all, Kakashi witnessed rin's death first.
Oh I read your OP. Nowhere did you explain how Obito's brain chakra transferred to Kakashi's MS. Their Sharingan being connected doesn't explain that one bit.
Furthermore, Tobirama wasn't even talking about MS, he was talking about 3T, which is smack dab in the page you showed.
And no, Obito was watching as Kakashi killed Rin. They saw it at the same time.
Well, there's literally NOTHING AT ALL that suggests Kakashi didn't activate his MS, yet there are reasons to believe otherwise.
Kakashi downplayers will never cease to amaze me.
Doesn't matter because the sharingan has the same mechanism as the MS. Both need uchiha blood and both need a traumatic experience to unlock or awaken.
And no, Kakashi killed rin before Obito even made it to the field.
Wrong. MS is much more difficult to activate than Sharingan, which already proves that their mechanisms are totally different. Not to mention that this is your baseless assumption which has no support at all.
Also, just because Kakashi killed Rin doesn't mean he had to activate MS at this very moment. MS is activated by EMOTIONS, not by the act of doing something. It's only logical that Kakashi was shocked at first and probably didn't fully realize what happened at the beginning. Only after a moment passed and he realized what he had done, did he feel the emotions. And that's when he awakened MS.
Even if you are right, which you most definitely are not. Kakashi is the reason both his and obito's ms activated. He's the one that killed Rin which triggered the MS in both their eyes. Obito had nothing to do with MS awakening.
Wrong. MS is much more difficult to activate than Sharingan, which already proves that their mechanisms are totally different. Not to mention that this is your baseless assumption which has no support at all.
Also, just because Kakashi killed Rin doesn't mean he had to activate MS at this very moment. MS is activated by EMOTIONS, not by the act of doing something. It's only logical that Kakashi was shocked at first and probably didn't fully realize what happened at the beginning. Only after a moment passed and he realized what he had done, did he feel the emotions. And that's when he awakened MS.
Good, the last thing we need is more speculation in this thread.
Doesn't matter because the sharingan has the same mechanism as the MS. Both need uchiha blood and both need a traumatic experience to unlock or awaken.
And Kakashi has no Uchiha blood, yet he awoke it. Obito said he awoke it, yet you're presenting a theory based on one-sided interpretation, only considering the facts you want to see, other than the ones plainly stating that you're wrong.
And no, Kakashi killed rin before Obito even made it to the field.
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Why didn't kakashi awaken it a little bit Sooner than obito? after all, Kakashi witnessed rin's death first.
Well, there's literally NOTHING AT ALL that suggests Kakashi didn't activate his MS, yet there are reasons to believe otherwise.
Kakashi downplayers will never cease to amaze me.
This is how kakashi's eye suddenly transformed into the MS while obito witnessed a traumatic event. Obito was near kakashi making their close proximity enabling it to connect the two MS eyes thus Obito and Kakashi both unlocked the MS.
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Kakashi is not an uchiha, he does not possess the necessary chakra in the brain to be able to awaken the Mankeyou.
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Conclusion:
I do not see how people can think that Kakashi unlocked the MS on his own specially since he is not an uchiha, He does need posses Uchiha blood and does not posses the necessary chakras in the brain to be able to convert it into a Doujutsu.
I can counter with how is Obito seeing through the eye he gave Kakashi when it's not in his eye socket? Clearly it's connected to Obito even without being in his eye socket. Also do you know how Genjutsu works? "Genjutsu is created when a ninja controls the chakra flow of the opponent's cerebral nervous system, thereby affecting their five senses." We don't see Itachi's chakra going in his victims do we? Even without Obito knowing, he could have connected to his eye in a similar fashion.
It's manga facts that Kakashi can't level up the Sharingan, Tobirama pretty much said it all here
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and
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. Kakashi doesn't have the special chakra that is awakened in Uchiha's brain to awaken the Sharingan, leveling the sharingan falls under the same category since the second page shows Tobirama continue on to say the sharingan align with the person's feelings with the hatred in their heart, Kakashi didn't show hatred, only sadness and disbelief while Obito went out of control and killed everyone of the mist ninjas, his hate was so great that it changed him into the evil guy he became.
For those who say how would Obito's chakra from his brain get to Kakashi's sharingan, How do you think chakra gets into the victims brain when the user uses genjutsu? We don't see chakra going into their body when Itachi use genjutsu do we? Obito was able to see through his other eye even when he was on his way to the location where Rin and Kakashi was and through that connection, he must have evolved both Sharingans. As for that scan above, Obito didn't know he awakened Kakashi's MS, he was still a good distance away and was overwhelmed by a lot of emotions.
FACT 1: Tobirama implied that non-Uchiha cannot activate Sharingan.
FACT 2: Almost no Uchiha who activated Sharingan managed to awaken MS as well.
The inevitable conclusion is that MS is more difficult to awaken than Sharingan, which AUTOMATICALLY denies your baseless assumption that mechanism behind awakening both is the same.
Now, I'm out of here before ignorance overwhelms me.
I can counter with how is Obito seeing through the eye he gave Kakashi when it's not in his eye socket? Clearly it's connected to Obito even without being in his eye socket. Also do you know how Genjutsu works? "Genjutsu is created when a ninja controls the chakra flow of the opponent's cerebral nervous system, thereby affecting their five senses." We don't see Itachi's chakra going in his victims do we? Even without Obito knowing, he could have connected to his eye in a similar fashion.
And Kakashi has no Uchiha blood, yet he awoke it. Obito said he awoke it, yet you're presenting a theory based on one-sided interpretation, only considering the facts you want to see, other than the ones plainly stating that you're wrong.
Doesn't matter, Kakashi witnessed her death a lot sooner than obito did and yet he didn't awaken it until obito was there and at the exact same time as obito's. smh.
Indeed, by your standard it's impossible for Kakashi to even have the MS to begin with.
Doesn't matter, Kakashi witnessed her death a lot sooner than obito did and yet he didn't awaken it until obito was there and at the exact same time as obito's. smh.
Desperate responses from people, who would be the fans of Kakashi, as anyone can guess. Kakashi cannot awaken the MS. Obito's statement is null and void, given how Tobirama's statement is well-supported by the mutations happening at trauma, always. The Sharingan requires Uchiha's chakra for mutation. Even Itachi stated in part one how Kakashi may have the body, but he doesn't possess the blood to negate Tsukyuomi - something which a person with the same blood should be able to do.
FACT 1: Tobirama implied that non-Uchiha cannot activate Sharingan.
FACT 2: Almost no Uchiha who activated Sharingan managed to awaken MS as well.
The inevitable conclusion is that MS is more difficult to awaken than Sharingan, which AUTOMATICALLY denies your baseless assumption that mechanism behind awakening both is the same.
Now, I'm out of here before ignorance overwhelms me.
So a non uchiha can't unlock the simple form of the sharingan but they can unlock the more advanced form of it being the mankeyou? Do you realize how absurd this sounds?
