The unstoppable force meets the immovable object.....

[ArabianLuffy]

The answer is nothing at all. No matter how great a force is and non-stop. It won't move and object.

∞ x 0 = 0

1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 x 0 = 0

Absolutely nothing. Zero. Nada.

 

[Penguin]

Immoveable object.

 

[EnDash]

The answer is nothing at all. No matter how great a force is and non-stop. It won't move and object.

∞ x 0 = 0

1,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000 x 0 = 0

Absolutely nothing. Zero. Nada.

that would be true if an immovable object would be zero. but an immovable object is one with a mass of infinity. so what you said is false.

newton's second law of motion:
F = MA, or A = F / M

F is the force, so we put infinity

M is the mass, so we put infinity

A is the accelration

A = ∞ / ∞ = 1

the object will move at an acceleration rate of 1 unit per second per second, the two paradoxes (unstoppable force and immovable object) cancel each other out and there is no more paradox.

 

[raziel777]

that would be true if an immovable object would be zero. but an immovable object is one with a mass of infinity. so what you said is false.

newton's second law of motion:
F = MA, or A = F / M

F is the force, so we put infinity

M is the mass, so we put infinity

A is the accelration

A = ∞ / ∞ = 1

the object will move at an acceleration rate of 1 unit per second per second, the two paradoxes (unstoppable force and immovable object) cancel each other out and there is no more paradox.

Wrong

10characters

At first, you may think that infinity divided by infinity equals one. After all, any number divided by itself is equal to one, however infinity is not a real or rational number. I am going to prove what infinity divided by infinity really equals, and you may not like the answer.

First, I am going to define this axiom (assumption) that infinity divided by infinity is equal to one:

∞
—
∞
= 1


Since ∞ = ∞ + ∞, then we are going to substitute the first infinity in our axiom:

∞ + ∞
———
∞
= 1


The next step is to split this fraction into two fractions:

∞
—
∞
+ ∞
—
∞
= 1


Next, substitute the axiom twice into the equation, we get:

1 + 1 = 1


Finally, this can be rewritten as:

2 = 1


This equation is obvious incorrect. Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.



If you still do not believe me, let's try proving this another way. Let's start with our axiom again.

∞
—
∞
= 1


Next, split this fraction into two parts.

∞ * 1
—
∞
= 1


Solve the fraction of 1 divided by ∞. At first, you would think 1 divided by ∞ is equal to 0, however that is not correct because that would mean 0 times ∞ would equal to 1. And that is proven not true here. However, 1 divided by ∞ does equal a limit approaching 0. In other words, 1 divided by ∞ does not equal a number or is undefined.

∞ * undefined = 1


As a result, we reached a dead end. Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is still undefined.

by Phil B

 

[EnDash]

Wrong

10characters

At first, you may think that infinity divided by infinity equals one. After all, any number divided by itself is equal to one, however infinity is not a real or rational number. I am going to prove what infinity divided by infinity really equals, and you may not like the answer.

First, I am going to define this axiom (assumption) that infinity divided by infinity is equal to one:

∞
—
∞
= 1


Since ∞ = ∞ + ∞, then we are going to substitute the first infinity in our axiom:

∞ + ∞
———
∞
= 1


The next step is to split this fraction into two fractions:

∞
—
∞
+ ∞
—
∞
= 1


Next, substitute the axiom twice into the equation, we get:

1 + 1 = 1


Finally, this can be rewritten as:

2 = 1


This equation is obvious incorrect. Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is NOT equal to one. Instead we can get any real number to equal to one when we assume infinity divided by infinity is equal to one, so infinity divided by infinity is undefined.



If you still do not believe me, let's try proving this another way. Let's start with our axiom again.

∞
—
∞
= 1


Next, split this fraction into two parts.

∞ * 1
—
∞
= 1


Solve the fraction of 1 divided by ∞. At first, you would think 1 divided by ∞ is equal to 0, however that is not correct because that would mean 0 times ∞ would equal to 1. And that is proven not true here. However, 1 divided by ∞ does equal a limit approaching 0. In other words, 1 divided by ∞ does not equal a number or is undefined.

∞ * undefined = 1


As a result, we reached a dead end. Therefore, infinity divided by infinity is still undefined.

by Phil B

god i hate irrational numbers. they show that either math is broken or our universe is broken. you know that at the center of a black hole gravity is infinity? that riddle is theoretical but irrational numbers are everywhere and we can't do shit with them.

 

[edo tensai wilmaso]

newtoian physics isnt all real and factual .... some concepts of physics are just totally false ... just how ppl though our planet was the center and the world is flat ... these physics will be replaced... but to
awnser the question ... nothing happens ... also since when is mass infinate ^^^ a couple post above me

 

[EnDash]

newtoian physics isnt all real and factual .... some concepts of physics are just totally false ... just how ppl though our planet was the center and the world is flat ... these physics will be replaced... but to
awnser the question ... nothing happens ... also since when is mass infinate ^^^ a couple post above me

newtonian physics is still good enough to predict things correctly, they really only use einstein's relativity for speeds close to the speed of light. in rocket science for instance they use newtonian physics because it's much faster and gives a good enough precision. same with quantum mehcanics, it's only used for stuff on the atomic scale cause thats where classical physics breaks down.

about the infinite mass, it's my physical despcription of an immovable object, because anything divided by infinity equals to zero then an object with a mass of infinity will never move. hence "immovable object".